Instant Download IAPP: CIPP-US Free Updated Test Dumps

Valid CIPP-US FREE EXAM DUMPS QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

The CIPP-US certification is offered by the International Association of Privacy Professionals (IAPP), which is the largest and most respected organization of its kind. The IAPP is dedicated to helping professionals develop the knowledge and skills they need to succeed in the constantly changing field of privacy and data protection.

 

NEW QUESTION # 54
What is the main reason some supporters of the European approach to privacy are skeptical about self- regulation of privacy practices?

• A. Human rights may be disregarded for the sake of privacy
• B. A new business owner may not understand the regulations
• C. Industries may not be strict enough in the creation and enforcement of rules
• D. A large amount of money may have to be sent on improved technology and security

Answer: C

Explanation:
The European approach to privacy is based on the recognition of privacy as a fundamental human right that requires strong legal protection and oversight. The EU has adopted comprehensive and binding privacy laws, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the ePrivacy Directive, that apply to all sectors and activities involving personal data. The EU also has independent data protection authorities (DPAs) that monitor and enforce compliance with the privacy laws, and a European Data Protection Board (EDPB)that issues guidance and opinions on privacy matters. The EU also requires adequate levels of privacy protection for personal data transferred to third countries or international organizations.
In contrast, the U.S. approach to privacy is based on a sectoral and self-regulatory model that relies on a combination of federal and state laws, industry codes of conduct, consumer education, and market forces. The
U.S. does not have a single, comprehensive, and enforceable federal privacy law that covers all sectors and activities involving personal data. Instead, the U.S. has a patchwork of federal and state laws that address specific issues or sectors, such as health, financial, children's, and electronic communications privacy. The
U.S. also has various federal and state agencies that share jurisdiction over privacy matters, such as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), and the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The U.S. also relies on self-regulation by industries that develop and adhere to voluntary codes of conduct, standards, and best practices for privacy. The U.S. also allows personal data to be transferred to third countries or international organizations without requiring adequate levels of privacy protection, as long as the data subjects have given their consent or the transfer is covered by a mechanism such as the Privacy Shield or the Standard Contractual Clauses.
Some supporters of the European approach to privacy are skeptical about self-regulation of privacy practices because they believe that self-regulation is not effective, consistent, or accountable enough to protect the rights and interests of data subjects. They argue that self-regulation may not provide sufficient incentives or sanctions for industries to comply with privacy rules, or to adopt privacy-enhancing technologies and practices. They also contend that self-regulation may not reflect the views and expectations of data subjects, or address the emerging and complex privacy challenges posed by new technologies and business models. They also question the transparency and legitimacy of self-regulation, and the ability of data subjects to exercise their rights and seek redress for privacy violations. References:
* IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 1: Introduction to the U.S. Privacy Environment, pp. 9-10, 16-17
* IAPP website, CIPP/US Certification
* NICCS website, Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) Training

NEW QUESTION # 55
Chanel Hair Studio is a busy high-end hair salon. In an effort to maximize efficiency of its operations and reduce wait times for appointments, Chanel decides to implement artificial intelligence software that will use client profiles and history to predict which clients will likely be late for their appointments. Information used to create the client profile included appointment history, distance from the salon, and any references to being tardy pulled from the client's social media accounts. If a client is predicted to be late, their appointment will be cancelled within 5 minutes.
Based on the details, what is the biggest potential privacy concern related to Chanel's use of this new software?

• A. Scanning a client's social media accounts to use in a client profile without notice to the client.
• B. Assessing client tardiness history with the salon for predictive purposes.
• C. Calculating client profile address distance from the salon to determine location from salon to help predict if the client will be late.
• D. Using client profile information for any purpose other than setting up an appointment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 56
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION
Otto is preparing a report to his Board of Directors at Filtration Station, where he is responsible for the privacy program. Filtration Station is a U.S. company that sells filters and tubing products to pharmaceutical companies for research use. The company is based in Seattle, Washington, with offices throughout the U.S.
and Asia. It sells to business customers across both the U.S. and the Asia-Pacific region. Filtration Station participates in the Cross-Border Privacy Rules system of the APEC Privacy Framework.
Unfortunately, Filtration Station suffered a data breach in the previous quarter. An unknown third party was able to gain access to Filtration Station's network and was able to steal data relating to employees in the company's Human Resources database, which is hosted by a third-party cloud provider based in the U.S. The HR data is encrypted. Filtration Station also uses the third-party cloud provider to host its business marketing contact database. The marketing database was not affected by the data breach. It appears that the data breach was caused when a system administrator at the cloud provider stored the encryption keys with the data itself.
The Board has asked Otto to provide information about the data breach and how updates on new developments in privacy laws and regulations apply to Filtration Station. They are particularly concerned about staying up to date on the various U.S. state laws and regulations that have been in the news, especially the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) and breach notification requirements.
What can Otto do to most effectively minimize the privacy risks involved in using a cloud provider for the HR data?

• A. Ensure that the cloud provider abides by the contractual requirements by conducting an on-site audit.
• B. Request that the Board sign off in a written document on the choice of cloud provider.
• C. Obtain express consent from employees for storing the HR data in the cloud and keep a record of the employee consents.
• D. Negotiate a Business Associate Agreement with the cloud provider to protect any health-related data employees might share with Filtration Station.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way for Otto to minimize the privacy risks involved in using a cloud provider for the HR data is to ensure that the cloud provider abides by the contractual requirements by conducting an on-site audit. This would allow Otto to verify that the cloud provider has implemented adequate security measures, such as encryption, access controls, and backup systems, to protect the HR data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. It would also allow Otto to check that the cloud provider is complying with the applicable privacy laws and regulations, such as the CCPA, the APEC Privacy Framework, and the breach notification requirements. By conducting an on-site audit, Otto can identify any gaps or weaknesses in the cloud provider's privacy practices and address them promptly. This would also demonstrate due diligence and accountability on the part of Filtration Station, which could mitigate the legal and reputational consequences of a data breach. References:
* [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 3: Data Assessments, pp. 77-78.
* IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Section III: Government and Court Access to Private-sector Information, Subsection B: Cross-Border Data Transfer, Topic 2: APEC Privacy Framework.
* IAPP CIPP/US Practice Questions, Question 125.

NEW QUESTION # 57
In which situation is a company operating under the assumption of implied consent?

• A. A retail clerk asks a customer to provide a zip code at the check-out counter
• B. An employer contacts the professional references provided on an applicant's resume
• C. A landlord uses the information on a completed rental application to run a credit report
• D. An online retailer subscribes new customers to an e-mail list by default

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Implied consent is a form of consent that is inferred from the actions or inactions of the data subject, rather than explicitly expressed by the data subject1.
* Implied consent is generally considered a valid basis for processing personal data under certain circumstances, such as when the processing is necessary for the performance of a contract, the legitimate interests of the data controller, or the reasonable expectations of the data subject2.
* However, implied consent may not be sufficient for processing sensitive personal data, such as health, biometric, or genetic data, or for sending marketing communications, depending on the applicable laws and regulations2.
* In the U.S., there is no comprehensive federal privacy law that regulates the use of implied consent for data processing, but there are sector-specific laws and state laws that may impose different requirements and limitations3.
* Based on the scenarios given in the question, the situation that is most likely to involve a company operating under the assumption of implied consent is A. An employer contacts the professional references provided on an applicant's resume.
* This is because the employer may reasonably infer that the applicant has consented to the contact of the references by voluntarily providing their information on the resume, and that the contact is necessary for the legitimate interest of the employer to verify the applicant's qualifications and suitability for the job4.
* The other situations may not involve implied consent, but rather require explicit consent or provide opt- out options for the data subjects, depending on the type and purpose of the data processing and the relevant laws and regulations5 . For example:
* B. An online retailer subscribes new customers to an e-mail list by default. This may violate the CAN-SPAM Act, which requires online marketers to obtain affirmative consent from the recipients before sending commercial e-mail messages, and to provide a clear and conspicuous opt-out mechanism in every message5.
* C. A landlord uses the information on a completed rental application to run a credit report. This may violate the Fair Credit Reporting Act, which requires landlords to obtain written authorization from the applicants before obtaining their consumer reports, and to provide them with a copy of the report and a summary of their rights if they take any adverse action based on the report.
* D. A retail clerk asks a customer to provide a zip code at the check-out counter. This may violate the California Song-Beverly Credit Card Act, which prohibits retailers from requesting and recording personal identification information from customers who pay with a credit card, unless the information is necessary for a special purpose, such as shipping or fraud prevention.
References: 1: Implied Consent 2: Consent 3: U.S. Private-Sector Privacy (CIPP/US) 4: [Reference Checks:
Tips for Job Applicants and Employers] 5: [CAN-SPAM Act: A Compliance Guide for Business] : [Using Consumer Reports: What Landlords Need to Know] : [California Song-Beverly Credit Card Act] : [Reference Checks: Tips for Job Applicants and Employers] : [CAN-SPAM Act: A Compliance Guide for Business] :
[Using Consumer Reports: What Landlords Need to Know] : [California Song-Beverly Credit Card Act]

NEW QUESTION # 58
Which act violates the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (FERPA)?

• A. A K-12 assessment vendor obtains a student's signed essay about her hometown from her school to use as an exemplar for public release
• B. A newspaper prints the names, grade levels, and hometowns of students who made the quarterly honor roll
• C. University police provide an arrest report to a student's hometown police, who suspect him of a similar crime
• D. A university posts a public student directory that includes names, hometowns, e-mail addresses, and majors

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 59
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION:
A US-based startup company is selling a new gaming application. One day, the CEO of the company receives an urgent letter from a prominent EU-based retail partner. Triggered by an unresolved complaint lodged by an EU resident, the letter describes an ongoing investigation by a supervisory authority into the retailer's data handling practices.
The complainant accuses the retailer of improperly disclosing her personal data, without consent, to parties in the United States. Further, the complainant accuses the EU-based retailer of failing to respond to her withdrawal of consent and request for erasure of her personal dat a. Your organization, the US-based startup company, was never informed of this request for erasure by the EU-based retail partner. The supervisory authority investigating the complaint has threatened the suspension of data flows if the parties involved do not cooperate with the investigation. The letter closes with an urgent request: "Please act immediately by identifying all personal data received from our company." This is an important partnership. Company executives know that its biggest fans come from Western Europe; and this retailer is primarily responsible for the startup's rapid market penetration.
As the Company's data privacy leader, you are sensitive to the criticality of the relationship with the retailer.
Upon review, the data privacy leader discovers that the Company's documented data inventory is obsolete. What is the data privacy leader's next best source of information to aid the investigation?

• A. Interviews with key marketing personnel
• B. Lists of all customers, sorted by country
• C. Reports on recent purchase histories
• D. Database schemas held by the retailer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 60
Under the Telemarketing Sales Rule, what characteristics of consent must be in place for an organization to acquire an exception to the Do-Not-Call rules for a particular consumer?

• A. The consent must be in writing, must have an end data and must state the times when calls can be made
• B. The consent must be in writing, must state the times when calls can be made to the consumer and must be signed
• C. The consent must be in writing, must contain the number to which calls can be made and must have an end date
• D. The consent must be in writing, must contain the number to which calls can be made and must be signed

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://www.ftc.gov/business-guidance/resources/complying-telemarketing-sales-rule#writtenagreement What must the written agreement contain? A written agreement need only contain: - unambiguous evidence that a call recipient is willing to receive telephone calls that deliver a - prerecorded message by or on behalf of a specific seller; the telephone number to which such messages may be delivered; and - the call recipient's signature.

NEW QUESTION # 61
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION:
A US-based startup company is selling a new gaming application. One day, the CEO of the company receives an urgent letter from a prominent EU-based retail partner. Triggered by an unresolved complaint lodged by an EU resident, the letter describes an ongoing investigation by a supervisory authority into the retailer's data handling practices.
The complainant accuses the retailer of improperly disclosing her personal data, without consent, to parties in the United States. Further, the complainant accuses the EU-basedretailer of failing to respond to her withdrawal of consent and request for erasure of her personal data. Your organization, the US-based startup company, was never informed of this request for erasure by the EU-based retail partner. The supervisory authority investigating the complaint has threatened the suspension of data flows if the parties involved do not cooperate with the investigation. The letter closes with an urgent request: "Please act immediately by identifying all personal data received from our company." This is an important partnership. Company executives know that its biggest fans come from Western Europe; and this retailer is primarily responsible for the startup's rapid market penetration.
As the Company's data privacy leader, you are sensitive to the criticality of the relationship with the retailer.
Upon review, the data privacy leader discovers that the Company's documented data inventory is obsolete.
What is the data privacy leader's next best source of information to aid the investigation?

• A. Lists of all customers, sorted by country
• B. Interviews with key marketing personnel
• C. Reports on recent purchase histories
• D. Database schemas held by the retailer

Answer: B

Explanation:
The data privacy leader needs to identify all the personal data that the Company has received from the retailer, as well as the purposes, retention periods, and sharing practices of such data. Since the data inventory is obsolete, the data privacy leader cannot rely on it to provide accurate and complete information. Therefore, the next best source of information is to interview the key marketing personnel who are responsible for the partnership with the retailer and the use of the personal data. The marketing personnel can provide insights into the data flows, the data categories, the data processing activities, and the data protection measures that the Company has implemented. They can also help the data privacy leader to locate the relevant documents, contracts, and records that can support the investigation. References: [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 5:
Data Management, p. 97-98; IAPP Privacy Tech Vendor Report, Data Mapping and Inventory, p. 9-10.

NEW QUESTION # 62
A financial services company install "bossware" software on its employees' remote computers to monitor performance. The software logs screenshots, mouse movements, and keystrokes to determine whether an employee is being productive. The software can also enable the computer webcams to record video footage.
Which of the following would best support an employee claim for an intrusion upon seclusion tort?

• A. The software automatically sends a notification to a supervisor any time the employee's mouse is dormant for more than five minutes.
• B. The company creates and saves a biometric template for each employee based upon keystroke dynamics.
• C. The webcam records video of an employee using a company laptop to perform personal business while at a coffee shop during work hours.
• D. The webcam is enabled to record video any time the computer is turned on.

Answer: D

Explanation:
An intrusion upon seclusion tort occurs when someone intentionally intrudes, physically or otherwise, upon the solitude or seclusion of another or his private affairs or concerns, if the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable person. The intrusion does not need to involve a physical trespass, but can also be an electronic or optical intrusion, such as using a webcam to record a person who has a reasonable expectation of privacy. The intrusion must also cause mental anguish or suffering to the plaintiff.

NEW QUESTION # 63
A covered entity suffers a ransomware attack that affects the personal health information (PHI) of more than
500 individuals. According to Federal law under HIPAA, which of the following would the covered entity NOT have to report the breach to?

• A. The local media
• B. Department of Health and Human Services
• C. Medical providers
• D. The affected individuals

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), a covered entity is a health plan, a health care clearinghouse, or a health care provider that transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a transaction covered by HIPAA. A covered entity must report a breach of unsecured protected health information (PHI) to the following parties:
* The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), which is the federal agency responsible for enforcing HIPAA and issuing regulations and guidance on privacy and security issues. A covered entity must notify HHS of a breach affecting 500 or more individuals without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. A covered entity must also notify HHS of breaches affecting fewer than 500 individuals within 60 days of the end of the calendar year in which the breaches occurred.
* The affected individuals, who are the individuals whose PHI has been, or is reasonably believed to have been, accessed, acquired, used, or disclosed as a result of the breach. A covered entity must notify the affected individuals without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. The notification must be in writing by first-class mail or, if the individual agrees, by electronic mail. The notification must include a brief description of the breach, the types of information involved, the steps the individual should take to protect themselves, the steps the covered entity is taking to investigate and mitigate the breach, and the contact information of the covered entity.
* The local media, if the breach affects more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction. A covered entity must notify prominent media outlets serving the state or jurisdiction without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 days after discovery of the breach. The notification must include the same information as the notification to the affected individuals.
A covered entity does not have to report the breach to medical providers, unless they are also affected individuals or business associates of the covered entity. A business associate is a person or entity that performs certain functions or activities on behalf of, or provides certain services to, a covered entity that involve the use or disclosure of PHI. A covered entity must have a written contract or agreement with its business associates that requires them to protect the privacy and security of PHI and report any breaches to the covered entity.
References:
* IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge, Domain II: Limits on Private-sector Collection and Use of Data, Section C: Sector-specific Requirements for Health Information
* IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 2: Limits on Private- sector Collection and Use of Data, Section 2.3: Sector-specific Requirements for Health Information
* Practice Exam - International Association of Privacy Professionals

NEW QUESTION # 64
California's SB 1386 was the first law of its type in the United States to do what?

• A. Require encryption of sensitive information stored on servers that are Internet connected
• B. Require commercial entities to disclose a security data breach concerning personal information about the state's residents
• C. Require notification of non-California residents of a breach that occurred in California
• D. Require state attorney general enforcement of federal regulations against unfair and deceptive trade practices

Answer: B

Explanation:
California's SB 1386, also known as the California Security Breach Information Act, was enacted in 2002 and became effective in 2003. It was the first law of its kind in the United States to require commercial entities that own or license personal information of California residents to notify them in the event of a security breach that compromises their unencrypted data. The law aims to protect the privacy and security of personal information and to enable individuals to take preventive measures against identity theft and fraud. The law applies to any business or person that conducts business in California and that owns or licenses computerized data that includes personal information, as defined by the law. Personal information includes an individual's first name or first initial and last name in combination with any one or more of the following data elements: Social Security number, driver's license number or California identification card number, account number, credit or debit card number, in combination with any required security code, access code, or password that would permit access to an individual's financial account, or medical information or health insurance information. The law does not apply to encrypted information, publicly available information, or information that is lawfully obtained from federal, state, or local government records. The law requires the disclosure of a breach of the security of the system to any resident of California whose unencrypted personal information was, or is reasonably believed to have been, acquired by an unauthorized person. The disclosure must be made in the most expedient time possible and without unreasonable delay, consistent with the legitimate needs of law enforcement or any measures necessary to determine the scope of the breach and restore the reasonable integrity of the data system. The disclosure may be made by written notice, electronic notice, or substitute notice, as specified by the law. The law also requires any person or business that maintains computerized data that includes personal information that the person or business does not own to notify the owner or licensee of the information of any breach of the security of the data immediately following discovery, if the personal information was, or is reasonably believed to have been, acquired by an unauthorized person. The law also authorizes a civil action for damages by a customer injured by a violation of the law and provides that the rights and remedies available under the law are cumulative to each other and to any other rights and remedies available under law. References:
* California Senate Bill 1386 (2002)
* California SB 1386: For the Love of Privacy
* What Is the California Security Breach Information Act?
* California Raises the Bar on Data Security and Privacy

NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following best describes an employer's privacy-related responsibilities to an employee who has left the workplace?

• A. An employer has a responsibility to maintain the security and privacy of any sensitive employment records retained for a legitimate business purpose.
• B. An employer has a responsibility to permanently delete or expunge all sensitive employment records to minimize privacy risks to both the employer and former employee.
• C. An employer has a responsibility to maintain a former employee's access to computer systems and company data needed to support claims against the company such as discrimination.
• D. An employer may consider any privacy-related responsibilities terminated, as the relationship between employer and employee is considered primarily contractual.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A legitimate business purpose for retaining records could aid with references, benefits & pension inquiries; legal proceedings, legal or regulation retention requirements; health & safety issues; etc.

NEW QUESTION # 66
One of the most significant elements of Senate Bill No. 260 relating to Internet privacy is the introduction of what term into Nevada law?

• A. Data Ethics
• B. Data Brokers
• C. Artificial Intelligence.
• D. Transfer Mechanism

Answer: B

Explanation:
One of the most significant changes introduced by Nevada Senate Bill 260 (SB 260) is the inclusion of the term "Data Brokers" into Nevada privacy law. The bill requires data brokers to register with the Nevada Secretary of State and comply with new privacy requirements, such as responding to consumer opt-out requests. This addition aligns Nevada's privacy framework more closely with laws like Vermont's data broker law.
Key Provisions of SB 260:
Definition of Data Brokers:
A data broker is defined as a company that collects, sells, or licenses consumer data and does not have a direct relationship with the consumer.
Registration Requirements:
Data brokers must register annually with the Nevada Secretary of State.
Consumer Rights:
Consumers are granted the right to opt out of the sale of their personal information, extending the scope of Nevada's existing privacy law.

NEW QUESTION # 67
What was the original purpose of the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act?

• A. To further define a framework for authorizing wiretaps by the executive branch for national security purposes under Article II of the Constitution.
• B. To further clarify when a warrant is not required for a wiretap performed internally by the telephone company outside the suspect's home, stemming from the Olmstead v. United States decision.
• C. To further clarify a reasonable expectation of privacy stemming from the Katz v. United States decision.
• D. To further define what information can reasonably be under surveillance in public places under the USA PATRIOT Act, such as Internet access in public libraries.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is NOT one of three broad categories of products offered by data brokers, as identified by the U.S. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)?

• A. Research (such as information for understanding consumer trends).
• B. Marketing (such as appending data to customer information that a marketing company already has).
• C. Risk mitigation (such as information that may reduce the risk of fraud).
• D. Location of individuals (such as identifying an individual from partial information).

Answer: A

Explanation:
The three broad categories of products offered by data brokers, as identified by the U.S. Federal Trade Commission (FTC), are: Marketing Products: These products include consumer information that is used for marketing purposes, such as creating targeted advertising campaigns, direct mail marketing, and telemarketing. Risk Mitigation Products: These products provide businesses with information to assess and manage risks, such as identity verification, fraud prevention, and anti-money laundering efforts. People Search Products: These products offer individuals' personal and contact information, which can be used for various purposes like locating people, reconnecting with lost contacts, and background checks.
https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/reports/data-brokers-call-transparency-accountability-report-federal-trade-commission-may-2014/140527databrokerreport.pdf

NEW QUESTION # 69
How did the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) amend the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)?

• A. It expanded the definition of "consumer reports" to include communications relating to employee investigations
• B. It increased the obligation of organizations to dispose of consumer data in ways that prevent unauthorized access
• C. It stipulated the purpose of obtaining a consumer report can only be for a review of the employee's credit worthiness
• D. It required employers to get an employee's consent in advance of requesting a consumer report for internal investigation purposes

Answer: B

Explanation:
FACTA added a new section to the FCRA that requires any person who maintains or otherwise possesses consumer information, or any compilation of consumer information, derived from consumer reports for a business purpose, to properly dispose of any such information or compilation. The purpose of this provision is to reduce the risk of identity theft and other consumer harm resulting from improper disposal of consumer information. The FTC and other federal agencies have issued rules implementing this provision, which specify the reasonable measures that covered entities must take to ensure secure disposal of consumer information, such as burning, pulverizing, shredding, erasing, or otherwise modifying the information to make it unreadable or indecipherable (16 CFR ?682.3).

NEW QUESTION # 70
......

Free CIPP-US Exam Braindumps IAPP  Pratice Exam: https://examtorrent.braindumpsit.com/CIPP-US-latest-dumps.html