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NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following criteria for clinical documentation means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated?

• A. Legible
• B. Complete
• C. Precise
• D. Reliable

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA, clinical documentation is at the core of every patient encounter and it must be meaningful to accurately reflect the patient's disease burden and scope of services provided. In order to be meaningful, the documentation must be clear, consistent, complete, precise, reliable, timely, and legible1. Reliability is one of the criteria for clinical documentation that means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated1. Reliability ensures that the documentation is consistent with the clinical evidence and reasoning, and that it can be verified by other sources or methods. Reliability also implies that the documentation is free from errors, omissions, contradictions, or ambiguities that could compromise its validity or usefulness1.
References:
Clinical Documentation Integrity Education & Training | AHIMA1

NEW QUESTION # 35
When writing a compliant query, best practice is to

• A. use a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis
• B. direct the physician to a specific diagnosis
• C. use the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present
• D. include all relevant clinical indicators

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
One of the best practices for writing a compliant query is to include all relevant clinical indicators from the health record that support the need for clarification and the query options. Clinical indicators are objective and measurable signs, symptoms, laboratory results, diagnostic test results, medications, treatments, and other documented findings that are related to a specific diagnosis or condition. Including clinical indicators helps to provide the rationale for the query, avoid leading or suggesting a desired response, and ensure that the query is based on evidence and not assumptions. The other options are not best practices for writing a compliant query.
Directing the physician to a specific diagnosis is leading and noncompliant. Using the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present is vague and imprecise. Using a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis is discouraged, as it limits the provider's choices and may not capture the true clinical picture.

NEW QUESTION # 36
A hospital clinical documentation integrity (CDI) director suspects physicians are over-using electronic copy and paste in patient records, a practice that increases the risk of fraudulent insurance billings. A documentation integrity project may be needed. What is the first step the CDI director should take?

• A. Alert senior leadership to the record documentation problem
• B. Bring together a team of physicians and informatics specialists
• C. Recommend the physicians to be involved in the project
• D. Gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The first step the CDI director should take is to gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation because it is important to establish the baseline and scope of the problem, as well as to identify the potential causes and consequences of over-using electronic copy and paste. Data collection can help to measure the frequency, severity, and impact of documentation errors, such as inconsistencies, redundancies, contradictions, or omissions. Data collection can also help to determine the best methods and tools for conducting the documentation integrity project, such as audits, surveys, interviews, or software applications. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline2
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1

NEW QUESTION # 37
What is the term used when a patient is entered in the Master Patient Index (MPI) multiple times, in different ways, resulting in multiple medical record numbers?

• A. Clone
• B. Replica
• C. Facsimile
• D. Overlap

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The term used when a patient is entered in the MPI multiple times, in different ways, resulting in multiple medical record numbers is overlap. An overlap occurs when a person has more than one medical record number within an integrated delivery network or enterprise, and may cause problems such as incomplete or inaccurate patient information, duplicate testing or treatment, billing errors, or patient safety issues. An overlap may be caused by data entry errors, system conversions, mergers or acquisitions, or lack of standardization. Regular audits of the MPI database must be done to identify and resolve any overlaps and ensure data quality and integrity.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Master patient index - Clinfowiki1

NEW QUESTION # 38
A hospital is conducting a documentation integrity project for the purpose of reducing indiscriminate use of electronic copy and paste of patient information in records by physicians. Which data should be used to quantify the extent of the problem?

• A. Percent of insurance billings denied due to lack of record documentation
• B. Results of a survey of physicians that asks about documentation practices
• C. Number of coder queries regarding inconsistent physician record documentation
• D. Incidence of redundancies in physician notes in a sample of hospital admissions

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, a documentation integrity project is a systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and improving the quality and accuracy of clinical documentation in the health record1. A documentation integrity project may have various purposes, such as enhancing patient safety, improving coding and reimbursement, or complying with regulatory standards1. One of the common issues that may affect the quality and accuracy of clinical documentation is the indiscriminate use of electronic copy and paste of patient information in records by physicians2. Copy and paste is a function that allows physicians to duplicate existing text in the record and paste it in a new destination, which may save time and effort, but also may introduce errors, inconsistencies, or redundancies in the documentation2. Therefore, to quantify the extent of the problem of copy and paste, the data that should be used is the incidence of redundancies in physician notes in a sample of hospital admissions. Redundancies are repeated or unnecessary information that may clutter the record and impair its readability and reliability3. By measuring the frequency and types of redundancies in physician notes, the hospital can assess the impact of copy and paste on the documentation quality and identify areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because they do not directly measure the problem of copy and paste. The percent of insurance billings denied due to lack of record documentation may reflect other issues besides copy and paste, such as incomplete or inaccurate documentation, coding errors, or payer policies4. The number of coder queries regarding inconsistent physician record documentation may indicate the presence of copy and paste, but it may also depend on other factors such as coder knowledge, query guidelines, or query response rate. The results of a survey of physicians that asks about documentation practices may provide some insight into the perceptions and attitudes of physicians regarding copy and paste, but it may not reflect the actual extent or impact of the problem on the documentation quality.
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Auditing Copy and Paste - AHIMA
Copy/Paste: Prevalence, Problems, and Best Practices - AHIMA
Documentation Denials: How to Avoid Them - AAPC
[Q&A: Querying for clinical validation | ACDIS]

NEW QUESTION # 39
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager is reviewing physician benchmarks and notices a low-severity level being measured against average length of stay.
What should the CDI manager keep in mind when discussing this observation with physicians?

• A. The query response rate directly correlates to quality reports.
• B. The indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports.
• C. The query rate is too high while the agreement rate is low.
• D. The diagnosis with a higher degree of specificity has a lower severity of illness.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, one of the CDI metrics and statistics that CDI managers should track and interpret is the severity level measured against average length of stay (ALOS)1. This indicator reflects the complexity and acuity of the patient population and the quality of care provided by the hospital2. A low-severity level with a high ALOS may indicate under-documentation or under-coding of the patient's condition, which may affect the hospital's reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores3. Therefore, the CDI manager should keep in mind that this indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports when discussing this observation with physicians, and educate them on the importance of documenting and coding accurately and completely to reflect the patient's true severity of illness. The other options are not correct because they do not address the issue of severity level measured against ALOS, or they are not relevant to the CDI manager's role or responsibility. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
Severity of Illness: What Is It? Why Is It Important? | HCPro

NEW QUESTION # 40
A patient falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure. Three weeks later, the patient returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device. The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate

• A. initial
• B. subsequent
• C. aftercare
• D. sequela

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate aftercare for a patient who falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure, and then returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device.
Aftercare codes are used to capture encounters for follow-up care after completed treatment of an injury or condition, such as removal of external fixation devices, casts, or pins. Aftercare codes are not used for subsequent encounters for complications or infections related to the injury or condition5 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 5:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077

NEW QUESTION # 41
An 86-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient complains of feeling tired, weak and excessive sleeping. The patient's daughter comments that patient's mental condition has not been the same. Lab results are unremarkable except for a sodium level of 119, a BUN of 22, and a creatinine of 1.35. The patient receives normal saline IV infusing at 100 cc/hr. The admitting diagnosis is weakness, altered mental status and dehydration. Which of the following queries is presented in an ethical manner thus avoiding potential fraud and/or compliance issues?

• A. Patient is feeling tired, weak, sleeping a lot and has altered mental status. Sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, please clarify the clinical significance of the lab result.
• B. Patient's sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, is this clinically significant? If so, please document a corresponding diagnosis related to this lab result.
• C. Patient is feeling tired, weak, sleeping a lot and has altered mental status. Sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr. Is the altered mental status related to the sodium of 119?
• D. Patient's sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, does patient have hyponatremia?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 42
An organization dealing with staffing shortages has adopted a policy requiring clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) to stop reviewing any record after a major complication or co-morbidity is found. What is the unintended consequence of this?

• A. Increase in case mix index
• B. Decrease in severity of illness and risk of mortality
• C. Increased number of records reviewed by each CDIP
• D. Reduced risk of clinical denials

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) are two metrics that measure the complexity and acuity of a patient's condition, based on the number, nature, and interaction of complications and comorbidities (CCs) and major CCs (MCCs). SOI reflects the extent of physiologic decompensation or organ system loss of function, while ROM reflects the likelihood of dying. Both SOI and ROM are divided into four levels: minor, moderate, major, or extreme. These metrics are used to adjust payment rates, quality indicators, and performance measures for hospitals and other healthcare providers.
If a CDIP stops reviewing any record after a major CC is found, they may miss other CCs or MCCs that could affect the patient's SOI and ROM levels. For example, a patient with pneumonia and sepsis would have a major CC (pneumonia) and an MCC (sepsis). If the CDIP stops reviewing the record after finding pneumonia, they would not capture sepsis, which would increase the patient's SOI and ROM levels from major to extreme.
This would result in underreporting the patient's true complexity and acuity, and potentially lead to lower reimbursement, lower quality scores, and higher denial risk.
Therefore, the unintended consequence of this policy is a decrease in SOI and ROM levels for patients who have more than one CC or MCC.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Q&A: Understanding SOI and ROM in the APR-DRG system
3M™ All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Groups (APR DRGs)
Severity of illness | definition of severity of illness by Medical dictionary Using Severity Adjustment Classification for Hospital Internal and External Comparisons

NEW QUESTION # 43
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) in an acute care hospital was asked to create new query templates for ICD-10 based on AHIMA and ACDIS guidelines. What should the multiple-choice query format include?

• A. Impact on reimbursement
• B. Clinically insignificant options
• C. Clinically unsupported diagnosis
• D. Clinically significant options

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 44
Proposed changes to the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) take effect on

• A. April 1
• B. January 1
• C. October 1
• D. July 1

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Proposed changes to the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) take effect on October 1 of each fiscal year (FY), which begins on October 1 and ends on September 30 of the next calendar year. The IPPS final rule is usually issued by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) around August 1 of each year, and it updates the Medicare payment policies and rates for acute care hospitals and long-term care hospitals for the upcoming FY. The effective date of the final rule is October 1, unless otherwise specified by CMS 2.
References: 1: Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) 2023 Final Rule Summary of ... 3 2: Acute Inpatient PPS | CMS 1

NEW QUESTION # 45
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) hired by an internal medicine clinic is creating policies governing written queries. What is an AHIMA best practice for these policies?

• A. Primary care physicians must answer written queries
• B. Queries are limited to non-leading questions
• C. Queries for illegible chart notes are unnecessary
• D. Non-responses to written queries are grounds for discipline

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA best practice for written queries, queries should be limited to non-leading questions that do not imply a specific answer or diagnosis, but rather ask for the provider's opinion based on their clinical judgment and the evidence in the health record. Non-leading questions help to ensure that the query is compliant, objective, and respectful of the provider's authority and autonomy. Leading questions, on the other hand, may introduce bias, influence the provider's response, or compromise the integrity of the documentation and coding. For example, a non-leading query for a patient with chest pain would be: "What is the etiology of the chest pain?" A leading query would be: "Is the chest pain due to acute myocardial infarction?" References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice-2022 Update1

NEW QUESTION # 46
Patient is admitted with oliguria, pulmonary edema, and dehydration. Labs are remarkable for an elevated creatinine of 2.4, with a baseline of 1.1. Patient was hydrated for 48 hours with drop in creatinine. What would the appropriate action be?

• A. Query the physician to see if acute renal failure with tubular necrosis is supported
• B. Query the physician to see if acute renal failure is clinically supported
• C. No query is needed because the patient was dehydrated
• D. Code acute renal failure since symptoms are there and documented

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The appropriate action in this case is to query the physician to see if acute renal failure is clinically supported.
This is because the patient has signs and symptoms of acute renal failure, such as oliguria, pulmonary edema, and elevated creatinine, but the diagnosis is not documented in the medical record. Acute renal failure is a clinical syndrome characterized by a rapid decline in kidney function and accumulation of metabolic waste products. It can be caused by various factors, such as dehydration, hypovolemia, sepsis, nephrotoxins, or obstruction. Acute renal failure can be classified according to the RIFLE criteria (Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss, End-stage kidney disease) or the AKIN criteria (Acute Kidney Injury Network), which are based on changes in serum creatinine and urine output 23. A query to the physician is needed to confirm or rule out the diagnosis of acute renal failure, specify the etiology and severity of the condition, and document any associated complications or comorbidities. A query to the physician will also improve the accuracy and completeness of the documentation and coding, and reflect the true clinical picture and resource utilization of the patient.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Acute Kidney Injury: Diagnosis and Management | AAFP 3: AKIN Classification for Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) - MDCalc

NEW QUESTION # 47
A 56-year-old male patient complains of feeling fatigued, has nausea & vomiting, swelling in both legs.
Patient has history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage III,
coronary artery disease (CAD) & hypertension (HTN). He is on Lisinopril. Vital signs: BP 160/80, P 84, R 20, T 100.OF. Labs: WBC 11.5 with 76% segs, GFR 45. CXR showed slight left lower lobe haziness. Patient was admitted for acute kidney injury (AKI) with acute tubular necrosis (ATN). He was scheduled for hemodialysis the next day. Two days after admission patient started coughing, fever of 101.8F, CXR showed left lower lobe infiltrate, possible pneumonia. Attending physician documented that patient has pneumonia and ordered Rocephin IV. How should the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) interact with the physician to clarify whether or not the pneumonia is a hospital-acquired condition (HAC)?

• A. No need to interact with the physician because it is obvious the pneumonia developed after admission, therefore, not present on admission.
• B. Dr. Adair, in your clinical opinion, do you think that the patient's acute kidney injury with ATN exacerbated the patient's pneumonia?
• C. No need to query the physician because even if the pneumonia is considered a HAC and cannot be used as an MCC, ATN is also an MCC.
• D. Dr. Adair, please indicate if the patient's pneumonia was present on admission (POA) based on the initial chest x-ray?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should interact with the physician to clarify whether or not the pneumonia is a hospital-acquired condition (HAC) by asking the physician to indicate if the pneumonia was present on admission (POA) based on the initial chest x-ray. This is because the POA status of a condition affects its coding, reporting, and reimbursement, and it is the responsibility of the physician to document the POA status of all diagnoses. The CDIP should not assume that the pneumonia developed after admission based on the timing of symptoms or treatment, as this may not reflect the true clinical picture. The CDIP should also not ask the physician about the causal relationship between the acute kidney injury and the pneumonia, as this is not relevant to the POA status. The CDIP should also not avoid querying the physician based on the presence of another MCC, as this may compromise the accuracy and completeness of documentation. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide
Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines

NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is a clinical documentation element supporting a transbronchial biopsy?

• A. Hemoptysis
• B. Pathology report documenting alveolar tissue
• C. Length of procedure
• D. Pathology report documenting bronchial tissue

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A transbronchial biopsy is a procedure that involves obtaining tissue samples from the alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs through a bronchoscope. A pathology report documenting alveolar tissue is a clinical documentation element that supports a transbronchial biopsy, as it confirms the source and nature of the tissue sample.
References: AHIMA. "CDIP Exam Preparation." AHIMA Press, Chicago, IL, 2017: 55-56.

NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is MOST likely to trigger a second-level review?

• A. A diagnosis that impacts a quality-of-care measure
• B. A record with multiple major complicating conditions (MCCs)
• C. A procedure code that increases reimbursement
• D. An account coded before the discharge summary is available

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, a second-level review is a process that involves a review of coded records by a designated person or team to ensure the accuracy and completeness of coding and documentation1. A second-level review may be triggered by various factors, such as high-risk or high-dollar accounts, coding quality indicators, payer requirements, or internal audit findings1. One of the factors that is most likely to trigger a second-level review is a record with multiple major complicating conditions (MCCs)2. MCCs are diagnoses that significantly affect the severity of illness and resource utilization of a patient, and are assigned a higher relative weight in the DRG system3. A record with multiple MCCs may indicate a complex or unusual case that requires additional validation and verification of the coding and documentation. A record with multiple MCCs may also affect the reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores of the hospital, and therefore may be subject to external scrutiny or audit4. The other options are not as likely to trigger a second-level review, as they are not as indicative of coding or documentation issues or risks. A procedure code that increases reimbursement may not necessarily require a second-level review, unless it is inconsistent with the documentation or the clinical indicators. A diagnosis that impacts a quality-of-care measure may be relevant for CDI purposes, but not necessarily for coding validation.
An account coded before the discharge summary is available may be incomplete or inaccurate, but it may also be corrected or updated before final billing.
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Building a Resilient CDI: Second Level Review
Major Complications or Comorbidities (MCC) & Complications or Comorbidities (CC) | CMS Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS

NEW QUESTION # 50
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